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Problem #698: Is there some $h(n)\to \infty$ such that for all $2\leq...

Is there some $h(n)\to \infty$ such that for all $2\leq i

Problem Statement

Is there some $h(n)\to \infty$ such that for all $2\leq i<j\leq n/2$\[\textrm{gcd}\left( \binom{n}{i},\binom{n}{j}\right) \geq h(n)?\]
Categories: Number Theory Binomial Coefficients

Progress

A problem of Erdős and Szekeres, who observed that\[\textrm{gcd}\left( \binom{n}{i},\binom{n}{j}\right) \geq \frac{\binom{n}{i}}{\binom{j}{i}}\geq 2^i\](in particular the greatest common divisor is always $>1$). This inequality is sharp for $i=1$, $j=p$, and $n=2p$.

This was resolved by Bergman [Be11], who proved that for any $2\leq i<j\leq n/2$\[\textrm{gcd}\left( \binom{n}{i},\binom{n}{j}\right) \gg n^{1/2}\frac{2^i}{i^{3/2}},\]where the implied constant is absolute.

Source: erdosproblems.com/698 | Last verified: January 16, 2026

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