Problem Statement
Let $M\geq 1$ and $N$ be sufficiently large in terms of $M$. Is it true that for every Sidon set $A\subset \{1,\ldots,N\}$ there is another Sidon set $B\subset \{1,\ldots,N\}$ of size $M$ such that $(A-A)\cap(B-B)=\{0\}$?
Categories:
Number Theory Sidon Sets Additive Combinatorics
Progress
Source: erdosproblems.com/42 | Last verified: January 13, 2026